Assistant Pharmacist Question Paper and Answer Key
FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Code: 072/2024
Medium of Question- English
Name of Post: Assistant Pharmacist
Department:Kerala State Civil Supplies Corpn. Limited
Cat.Number:009/2023,038/2023,303/2023,304/2023,415/20234,477/2023,508/2023
Date of Test : 20.06.2024
1. A process that removes infection potentials by destroying microorganisms
A) Granulation
B) Sterilization
C) Clarification
D) Disinfection
Question Cancelled
2. The holding temperature and minimum time using for moist heat sterilization in an autoclave
A) 115°C to 116°C for 30 minutes
B) 100°C to 111°C for 60 minutes
C) 115°C to 118°C for 60 minutes
d) 121°C to 124°C for 30 minutes
3. Which of the following filter is not a bacteria proof one ?
A) Ceramic filter
B) Membrane filter
C) Seitz filter
D) Filter cloth
4. Tablets which are designed to place under the tongue for disintegration/dissolution and absorption directly are called
A) Buccal tablets
B) Chewable tablets
C) Sublingual tablets
d) dispensing tablets
5. Substances that reduce inter particular friction during compression of granules and friction between tablet and die wall during the ejection of tablets
A) Glidants
B) lubricants
C) Adsorbents
d) diluents
6. The property of an ideal enteric coating material, which is used for tablet coating is
A) Resistance to gastric fluid
B) Resistance to intestinal fluid
C) liable to cracking and chipping
d) Water proof coating is required prior to coating
7. Cellulose acetate phthalate is a tablet coating material using for
A) Sugar coating
B) Syrup coating
C) Enteric coating
D) Film coating
8. Coacervation technique is used for
A) dry granulation
B) Sterilization by mechanical method
C) microencapsulation
d) Testing mechanical strength of tablets
9. What is the use of Sorbitol in soft gelatin capsules ?
A) As a preservative
B) As an opacifying agent
C) As a sweetening agent
d) As a plasticizer
10. The time specified for the disintegration of soft gelatin capsules as per Indian Pharmacopoeia
A) 30 minutes
B) 60 minutes
C) 90 minutes
d) 45 minutes
11. Compound Tragacanth powder is using in suspension containing indiffusible solids as a
A) Protective colloid
B) Colouring agent
C) Flavouring agent
D) Humectant
12. The pharmaceutical substance light magnesium carbonate is a
A) Soluble solid
B) Indiffusible solid
C) diffusible solid
d) Potent drug
13. What is the ratio of phenol and purified water for preparing liquefied phenol as per IP ?
A) 10 : 90
B) 80 : 20
C) 50 : 50
d) 70 : 30
14. The Hydrophilic-lipophilic-Balance (H.l.B.) range of o/w type emulsion forming emulgents is
A) 15 – 18
B) 7 – 9
C) 8 – 18
d) 13 – 15
15. In case of temporary or permanent renal failure, the removal of waste products and the maintenance of electrolyte balance, is done by
A) Haemodialysis
B) Filtration
C) Radiation
d) Infusion
16. Cosmetic products which are used to reduce the sweat formation and body odour
A) Antipersipirants and deodorants
B) Shampoos
C) depilatory agent
d) Cleansing creams
17. Type of injections are given between the duramater and the inner aspects of the vertebra-route are
A) Intrathecal injections
B) Intracisternal injections
C) Intra-articular injections
d) Peridural injections
18. The animal which is used to perform pyrogen test in injections
A) dog
B) Cat
C) Rabbit
d) Horse
19. Filter which is using for making the air in the aseptic area free from fibres, dust and microorganism
A) High efficiency particulate air filters
B) Meta filters
C) Filter candles
D) Sintered filters
20. The base which is not suitable for the preparation of eye ointment base
A) Yellow soft paraffin
B) White soft paraffin
C) Liquid paraffin
D) Wool fat
21. Which of the following statement is correct about hydrochloric acid lP ?
A) lt is an aqueous solution of hydrogen chloride in water and of purity not less than 35% w/w and not more than 38% w/w of HCl
B) lt is an aqueous solution of hydrogen chloride in water and of purity not less than 38% w/w and not more than 40% w/w of HCl
C) lt is a concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid of purity not less than 97% w/w and not more than 102% w/w of HCl
d) lt is a concentrated solution of hydrochloric acid of purity not less than 95% w/w and not more than 100% w/w of HCl
22. Dilute hydrochloric should have purity and specific gravity _______ and _______ as per lP.
A) Purity 9.8 to 10.8% w/w and specific gravity 1.04 – 1.05 g/ml
B) Purity 8.5 to 10.5% w/w and specific gravity 1.34 – 1.15 g/ml
C) Purity 8.5 to 10.5% w/w and specific gravity 1.04 – 1.25 g/ml
D) Purity 9.5 to 10.5% w/w and specific gravity 1.04 – 1.05 g/ml
23. Which one among the given options is not the natural source of boric acid ?
A) Borocalcite
B) leucite
C) Colemanite
d) Borax
24. Which of the following statement is correct about strong ammonium hydroxide solution ?
A) lt is an aqueous solution of ammonia of purity not less than 27% w/v and not more than 30% w/v of ammonia
B) It is an aqueous solution of ammonia of purity not less than 37% w/v and not more than 42% w/v of ammonia
C) lt is an aqueous solution of ammonia of purity not less than 32% w/v and not more than 38% w/v of ammonia
d) lt is an aqueous solution of ammonia of purity not less than 27% w/v and not more than 32% w/v of ammonia
25. Thiamine hydrochloride is sensitive to a pH over 5, hence thiamine hydrochloride injection B.P. is maintained at a pH
A) 3 – 4.5
B) 1.1 – 4.5
C) 2.8 – 3.4
d) 1.5 – 3.9
26. Limit test for chlorides in potassium permanganate is performed by first decolorizing it by treating with
A) Bleaching powder
B) Acetone
C) Ethanol
d) Acetic acid
27. lodine tincture contains ___________ percentage of iodine.
A) 5
B) 7
C) 2.5
d) 10
Question Cancelled
28. Borax is
A) disodium pentaborate
B) disodium tetraborate
C) monosodium hexaborate
d) monosodium heptanoate
29. Twenty volume hydrogen peroxide aqueous solution should contain not less than ____________ H2O2.
A) 4%
B) 8%
C) 10%
d) 6%
30. Which statement is/are true about ammonium chloride ?
i) Ammonium chloride is assayed by Volhard’s method.
ii) Ammonium chloride is assayed by acid-base titration.
iii) Ammonium chloride is a reflux expectorant.
iv) Ammonium chloride is an antidote for cyanide poisoning.
A) Only iv
B) Only i and ii
C) Only i, ii and iii
d) Only iii
31. Proflavine is an acridine derivative having two amino groups at positions
A) 3 and 6
B) 2 and 8
C) 4 and 7
d) 9 and 4
32. ___________ is a long-acting sulphonamide.
A) Sulphaguanidine
B) Pthalyl Sulphathiazole
C) Sulphadimethoxine
d) Sulphacetamide
33. ___________ is an antibiotic having hydronaphthalene ring.
A) Benzyl Penicillin
B) Tetracycline
C) Cloxacillin
d) Chloramphenicol
Question Cancelled
34. Beta-lactum ring is having double bond between __________ which maintains the strained ring system and increases beta-lactamase resistance.
A) Carbon 1 and Carbon 2
B) Carbon 3 and Carbon 4
C) Carbon 2 and Carbon 3
d) Carbon 4 and Carbon 5
Question Cancelled
35. Which antimalarial drug given below is a fully substituted pyrimidine ?
A) Proguanil
B) Primaquine
C) Pyrimethamine
d) Pamaquine
36. Chlorpromazine has the following biological actions except __________ action. Select the exception from the options.
A) Anticancer
B) Sedative
C) Anti-emetic
d) Antipruritic
37. The drug which is not a catecholamine is
A) Adrenaline
B) Nor Adrenaline
C) dopamine
d) Ephedrine
38. Atropine has the following uses except ___________. Select the exception from the options.
A) Symptomatic treatment of Parkinsonism
B) Used as Pre-anesthetic medication
C) Used as Antispasmodic in radiological examination of gut
d) Used to treat urinary tract obstruction
39. ___________ is a loop diuretic.
A) Chlorothiazide
B) Furosemide
C) Urea
d) mannitol
40. __________ is the anticancer drug which acts as antimetabolite of folic acid.
A) Chlorambucil
B) methotrexate
C) Busulphan
d) Azathioprine
41. Aloe emodin present in aloe is detected by
A) Modified Borntrager’s test
B) Cupraloin test
C) Borax test
d) Nitric acid test
42. The aroma of ginger is due to the presence of
A) Zingerone
B) Gingerol
C) Zingiberene
d) Citral
Question Cancelled
43. Vanillin is synthesized from
A) Euginol
B) linalool
C) Menthol
D) Fenchone
44. Which of the following drug is used as cardiac depressant ?
A) Belladonna
B) Punarnava
C) Cinchona
d) Ergot
45. Which crude drug is known as St. Antony’s fire ?
A) digitalis
B) Ergot
C) Opium
d) Ephedra
46. The saponin glycoside present in digitalis is
A) Gitaloxin
B) digitonin
C) digitoxose
d) Gitoxin
47. Which of the following is the source of citral ?
A) lemongrass oil
B) Arachis oil
C) Sandalwood oil
d) Castor oil
48. Paracytic stomata is present in
A) Vasaka leaves
B) digitalis leaves
C) Senna leaves
d) Belladonna leaves
49. The euginol content of clove oil is
A) 16 – 21%
B) 8 – 10%
C) 3 – 4%
d) 85 – 90%
50. Papain is used as
A) Anti-diabetic
B) Anti-hypertensive
C) Anti-inflammatory
D) Cardiac tonic
51. Which among the following is not an atypical antipsychotic agent ?
A) Risperidone
B) Olanzapine
C) Bupropion
d) Zotepine
52. __________ is a vasicoselective anticholinergic agent.
A) Dicyclomine
B) Flavoxate
C) Atropine
d) Benzhexol
53. Compound used in the treatment of morphine addiction is
A) methadone
B) Naloxone
C) Tramadol
d) Nalorphine
54. Antihypertensive agent safely used in pregnancy
A) Enalapril
B) losartan
C) Atenolol
d) Alpha methyl dopa
55. drug effective in petitmal epilepsy
A) Phenytoin
B) Ethosuximide
C) Phenobarbitone
d) Clobazam
56. A protease inhibitor used in the treatment of AIDS
A) Indinavir
B) Nevirapine
C) Zidovudine
D) Tenofovir
57. Which among the following is a source of nitric oxide ?
A) Nifedipine
B) Verapamil
C) Glyceryl trinitrate
D) Nicorandil
Question Cancelled
58. Malignant hyperthermia is associated with which among the following drug ?
A) Streptomycin
B) Clonazepam
C) Atenolol
D) Halothane
59. Which among the following is an example for drug synergism ?
A) Cotrimoxazole
B) INH-Pyridoxine
C) Haloperidol-Benzhexol
D) Clotrimazole
60. Urinary infection is common with which among the following antidiabetic agent ?
A) Vildagliptin
B) Canagliflozin
C) Acarbose
D) Glipizide
61. The date in which the Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act and rules, 1985 came into force in India on
A) 1 January 1986
B) 14 November 1985
C) 14 December 1985
D) 1 January 1985
62. According to Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act, 1985, poppy straw is defined as
A) All parts of the opium poppy after harvesting
B) All parts (except the seeds) of the opium poppy after harvesting whether in their original form
C) All parts (except the leaves and stem) after harvesting of the plant opium poppy
D) Juice from the seeds and leaves of opium poppy after harvesting
63. The minimum number of registered pharmacist normally nominated by the state government to the state pharmacy council
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Question Cancelled
64. The trial for the offences under drugs and magic Remedies Act and Rules, 1955 can be carried out only in
A) Special court for drugs
B) Chief judicial magistrate court
C) Magistrate of first class
D) Sessions court
65. The punishment for a subsequent violation of drugs and magic Remedies Act and Rules, 1955 is
A) Imprisonment upto 3 months or with fine or both
B) Imprisonment upto 6 months or with fine or both
C) Imprisonment upto 12 months or with fine or both
D) Imprisonment upto 24 months or with fine or both
66. Which of the following statement is correct about spurious drugs ?
A) drugs not labelled in the prescribed manner
B) drugs which bear names of other drugs
C) drugs containing color other than those prescribed
d) drugs packed in containers composed of poisonous or deleterious substance
67. The license for retail sale of Schedule X drugs is issued in
A) Form 19
B) Form 20
C) Form 20F
D) Form 21
68. The sample taken by a drugs inspector from a drug manufacturing premise is divided into
A) 2 portions
B) 3 portions
C) 4 portions
d) 5 portions
69. Which among the given drugs belong to Schedule C1 class ?
A) Insulin injection
B) Tetanus toxoid
C) BCG vaccine
d) Oral polio vaccine
70. As per Schedule P of the drugs and Cosmetic Act and Rules 1945, store in a cool place refers to the temperature
A) 2°C – 8°C
B) 8°C – 15°C
C) 10°C – 25°C
d) 10°C – 35°C
71. The minimum desirable area to open a combined wholesale and retail drug store is
A) 5 m2
B) 10 m2
C) 15 m2
d) 20 m2
72. In the combination codification system to arrange the items in a pharmacy drug store, which codes are combined together ?
A) Alphabetical and Numerical method
B) Numerical and location method
C) Alphabetical and mnemonic method
d) Numerical and mnemonic method
Question Cancelled
73. For materials like menthol, which are subject to wastage during storage, the pricing method commonly used
A) Replacement price method
B) Last in first out method
C) Inflated price method
D) First in first out method
74. The perpetual inventory system comprises of
A) Bin card, stores ledger and periodic report
B) Bin card, periodic report and moving ratios
C) Bin card, stores ledger and continuous stock taking
d) Bin card, moving ratios and vital items
75. The equation used for calculating maximum stock level is
A) Re-order quantity – Re-order level + minimum consumption
B) Re-order quantity + Re-order level – maximum consumption
C) Re-order quantity + Re-order level – minimum consumption
d) Re-order quantity × Re-order level – maximum consumption
76. Which among the following is a social quality needed for a salesman ?
A) good voice with nice tone
B) good memory with product knowledge
C) polite and courteous
d) good intelligence with imaginative power
77. Which is the main method used for advertising ethical pharmaceutical products ?
A) Newspaper
B) Television
C) detailing
d) Electric sign
78. Which bank is mainly promoting export-import business in India ?
A) SBI
B) IdBI
C) IOB
d) EXIm
79. The working capital required by a business is normally not used for
A) Purchase of raw material
B) Payment of salary
C) Purchase of machinery
d) Payment of rent
80. Which application form (as per drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945) is used to apply for a retail drug store license ?
A) 19
B) 19A
C) 20
d) 21
81. Name the instrument used to fix surgical towels in place during surgery.
A) Horsley’s type clip
B) Bobcock’s untoothed tissue forceps
C) Gray’s type clip
d) Haemostatic forceps
82. Which is the health accessory used by the patient to promote proper body alignment ?
A) Canes
B) Orthopaedic braces
C) Rib belts
d) Knee caps
83. The first scientific Hospital Formulary in India was published in which year ?
A) 1985
B) 2002
C) 1997
d) 1968
84. Which of the statement is true for Beta propiolactone as an non-inflammable liquid to sterilize things in CSSD ?
A) Irritant to eyes
B) may cause shortness of breath
C) Carcinogenic to skin
d) All of the above
85. What is the use of diffuser in a sterile manufacturing area in a hospital ?
A) Used to throw the particles towards the corner
B) To clean the aseptic area
C) Used environmental control
d) To increase the visibility of manufacturing unit
86. Name the test which is employed to find out leakage in thermolabile products in hospital manufacturing.
A) Visual method
B) light blocking method
C) Spark detector method
d) Coulter counter method
87. Which one is the computer based database used to predict Pharmacokinetic parameters in a hospital set up ?
A) NONlIN
B) mEdIPHOR
C) BIOSIS
d) PAd
88. What are the components present in the IV set, except ?
A) Plastic spike
B) IV admixture
C) Flow regulator
D) Drip chamber
89. Dissertations are comes under which type of source of information ?
A) Tertiary source
B) Secondary source
C) Primary source
d) None of the above
90. “mobile dispensing unit” is mainly adopted to give medicines to patients comes under which type of drug distribution system ?
A) Complete floor stock system
B) Unit dose dispensing system
C) Individual prescription order system
d) None of the above
91. Which drug causes the ADR cleft palate ?
A) Thalidomide
B) methotrexate
C) Insulin
d) Phenytoin
Question Cancelled
92. “Cheese reaction” is an example of which type of interaction ?
A) drug – drug interaction
B) drug – food interaction
C) drug – laboratory test interaction
d) None of the above
93. The interaction of barbiturates and mAOls causes
A) Prolonged action
B) Haemorrhage
C) Cataract
d) AIopecia
94. Which is used as an antidote for acute iron toxicity ?
A) Atropine sulphate
B) desferrioxamine
C) EdTA
d) Tannic acid
95. Name the method used to stimulate respiration in a poisoned person.
A) Anal stretch
B) Universal antidote administration
C) Gastric lavage
d) Purgation
Question Cancelled
96. Which chemical agent can be used for alkalinisation of urine in barbiturate poisoning ?
A) Sodium nitrate
B) Potassium citrate
C) Sodium bicarbonate
d) Sodium lactate
97. As a Clinical Pharmacist, what drug would you recommend to relieve morning sickness in first trimester of pregnancy ?
A) Thalidomide
B) Phenytoin
C) dicyclomine
d) Pyridoxine
98. “Gooseflesh” is one of the withdrawal symptoms of which type of drug use ?
A) Barbiturates
B) Alcohol
C) Narcotics
d) lSd
99. Name the condition which explains “is a state of periodic or chronic intoxication produced by the repeated consumption of a drug”.
A) drug tolerance
B) drug misuse
C) Detoxification
D) Drug addiction
100. Azoturia is a clinical manifestation for the disease
A) Hepatitis
B) diabetes mellitus
C) Tuberculosis
d) Peptic ulcer
Question Cancelled
