Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology Question Paper and Answer Key

FINAL ANSWER KEY
Question Paper Code: 75/2024/OL
Category Code: 628/2023
Exam: Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology
Date of Test 27-06-2024
Department : Govt Homoeopathic Medical Colleges

Question1:-The preimplantaion embryo requires exogenous energy sources from all except
A:-Lactate
B:-Glucose
C:-Peritoneal fluid
D:-Pyruvate
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question2:-Which is capable of steroidogenesis
A:-Cumulus oophorus
B:-Theca interna
C:-Zona Pellucida
D:-Corona Radiata
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question3:-Fat mobilization during pregnancy is increased by lipoprotein lipase and maintained by all except
A:-Oestriol
B:-Progesterone
C:-Human chorionic gonadotropin
D:-Oestradiol
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question4:-Which of the following about vagina is false ?
A:-Partly derived from urogenital sinus
B:-Lined by stratified squamous epithelium
C:-Rich in glands
D:-Posterior fornix lengthier than anterior fornix
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question5:-Drug that can be given for superficial venous thrombosis are all except
A:-Beparin creme
B:-Low dose Aspirin
C:-Hirudoid ointment
D:-Acedofenac + paracetamol
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question6:-Drugs for stimulation of Lactation is
A:-Matachlorpromide
B:-Framycetin
C:-Soframycin
D:-Chlorhexidine
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question7:-Which is the most important plane in obstructed labour
A:-Plane of inlet
B:-Plane of outlet
C:-Plane of greatest pelvic dimensions
D:-Plane of least pelvic dimensions
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question8:-Which is the shortest dimensions of fetal skull
A:-Bitemporal
B:-Biparietal
C:-Occipito frontal
D:-Sub occipito frontal
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question9:-Prematurity is higher in
A:-Those who work in pregnancy
B:-Those taking rest in pregnancy
C:-Smoking in pregnancy
D:-Those who take exercise in pregnancy
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question10:-The Vaccine recommended during pregnancy is
A:-Vaccine against varicella zoster
B:-Measles vaccine
C:-Rabies vaccine
D:-Mumps vaccine
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question11:-Use of folic acid to prevent congenital malformation is best initiated
A:-During 1st trimester
B:-During 2nd trimester
C:-During 3rd trimester
D:-Before Conception
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question12:-Oxygenated blood is carried out from placenta to heart in utero by
A:-Umbilical vein
B:-Inferior venacava
C:-Ductus arteriosis
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question13:-Soft markers of ultrasound are all except
A:-Short nasal bone
B:-Thickened nuchal fold
C:-Echogenic bowel
D:-Duodenal atresia
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question14:-Which of the following is not an evidence of early pregnancy loss on USG ?
A:-CRL ≥ 7 mm and no heart beat
B:-MSD ≥ 25 mm and no embryo
C:-An initial USG shows a gestational sac with yolk sac and after ≥ 7 days, no embryo with heart beat is seen
D:-An initial USG shows a gestational sac without a yolk sac and after ≥ 2 weeks no embryo with heart beat is seen
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question15:-The recurrence risk in case of a previons Abruptio Placentae with fetal death is
A:-30%
B:-12%
C:-3%
D:-50%
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question16:-WOMAN trial evaluated the efficiency of
A:-Tranexamic acid in PPH
B:-Prostaglandin E1(PGE1) in PPH
C:-Prostaglandin in PPH
D:-Oxytocin in PPH
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question17:-Identify the incorrect statement about miscarriage
A:-Of all miscarriages, approximately 50% are euploid and 50% has chromosomal abnormality
B:-The rate of abortion with euploid fetuses peaks at approximately 8 weeks of gestational age.
C:-95% of chromosomal abnormalities that result in abortion are due to errors in maternal gametogenesis
D:-Monosomy (45, X) is the single most frequent specific chromosomal abnormality that result in miscarriage.
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question18:-Stage 2 antenatal Twin Anemia Polycythemia Sequence (TAPS) classification corresponds to
A:-MCA PSV of donor over 1.7 MOM and recipient <0.8 MOM without other signs of fetal compromise.
B:-MCA PSV of donor less than 1.7 MOM and recipient over 0.8 MOM without other signs of fetal compromise.
C:-MCA PSV of donor over 1.5 MOM and recipient less than 1 MOM without other signs of fetal compromise.
D:-MCA PSV of donor less than 1.5 MOM and recipient over 1 MOM.
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question19:-Identify the incorrect statement in the management of uterine inversion following delivery.
A:-If inversion occurs with placenta attached, try to reposition with placenta-insitu.
B:-If uterine reposition with placenta attached not possible, try to peel it off and reposition.
C:-Once repositioned, start oxytocics
D:-If manual reposition fails, do surgical correction by Haultain’s procedure where upward traction is given on round ligaments with atraumatic clamps.
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question20:-Pelvic inlet contraction is diagnosed when
A:-Obstetric Conjugate is <11.5cm
B:-Obstetric Conjugate is <13.5cm
C:-Diagonal Conjugate is <11.5cm
D:-Diagonal Conjugate is <13.5cm
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question21:-Identify the incorrect statement regarding epidural analgesia in labor
A:-Complete analgesia for labor and delivery vaginally necessitates blockade of 710 – S2 segments.
B:-Hypotension is the most frequent side effect of epidural analgesia
C:-The frequency of intrapartum fever associated with epidural analgesia is 10-15% above baseline.
D:-Dural puncture epidural analgesia has got faster onset of action.
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question22:-Start plotting WHO Labor Care Guide (LCG) for all patients in labor when.
A:-The patient has entered active phase of first stage of labor and cervix is ≥5cm dilated.
B:-When the patient has entered active phase of first stage of labor and cervix is ≥6cm dilated
C:-When the patient has entered latent phase of labor
D:-When the patient has entered active phase of labor and cervix ≥4cm dilated
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question23:-Which of the following is an indication for Caesarean Section as per Obstetrical Care Consensus Criteria for management of Arrest disorders in labor ?
A:-No progress after 2 hrs of adequate contraction and ruptured membranes.
B:-No progress after 4 hrs of adequate contraction and ruptured membranes.
C:-No progress after 4 hrs of inadequate contraction despite oxytocin stimulation.
D:-No progress after 2 hrs of inadequate contraction despite oxytocin stimulation.
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question24:-As per ISUOG Guidelines for Intrapartum Ultrasound, identify the incorrect statement.
A:-Sonographic assessment of fetal head position is best performed by trans abdominal imaging in axial and sagittal planes.
B:-Sonographic assessment of head station is best performed by transperineal ultrasound in midsagittal or axial plane.
C:-Angle of progression is an accurate and reproducible parameter to assess the fetal head descent.
D:-The most reliable sonographic parameter to predict the outcome of operative vaginal delivery is midline angle.
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question25:-Identify the incorrect statement regarding induction of labor.
A:-Success rates of prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) comparable to oxytocin for ruptured membranes at term and or favourable cervix.
B:-Tachysystole common with oral dose > 25 mg of prostaglandin E1 (PGE1).
C:-EASI combined with oxytocin infusion is superior to prostaglandin E1 (PGE1) vaginally.
D:-Trans cervical 36F Foley catheter improves Bishop’s score rapidly.
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question26:-Among the following which drug is associated with significant neonatal morbidity.
A:-Dexamethasone
B:-Magnesium sulfate
C:-Nifedipine
D:-Atosiban
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question27:-Which of the following statements is/are correct about risk factors for fetal macrosomia ?
I. Maternal age >35 years.
II. Post term pregnancy.
III. Multiparity.
IV. Eating disorders.
V. Large size parents.
A:-Only I, III and V
B:-Only II, III and IV
C:-Only I, II, III and V
D:-Only II
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question28:-Which anti hypertensive agent for urgent control of severe hypertension precipitates bronchial asthma ?
A:-Nifedipine
B:-Labetalol
C:-Hydralazine
D:-Nitroglycerine
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question29:-All of the following are pregnancy specific conditions causing maternal thrombocytopenia in pregnancy EXCEPT
A:-Gestational thrombocytopenia
B:-Thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura
C:-Hemolytic-Uremic Syndrome
D:-Acute fatty liver of pregnancy
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question30:-Which is NOT true regarding Varizella-Zoster virus infection in pregnancy ?
A:-Herpes zoster appears to be more frequent and severe in gravidas
B:-The incidence of VZV pneumonia in gravidas is only 2.5 percent.
C:-Congential varizella syndrome rarely develop in maternal herpes zoster.
D:-Varicella Zoster Immunoglobulin should be administered to neonates born to mothers who have clinical evidence of varicella 5 days before and 2 days after delivery.
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question31:-USG indicated cervical cerclage is offered if
A:-Incidental finding of cervix <25 mm
B:-Primi with short cervix
C:-Cervical funneling
D:-Cervical length is less than 25mm among pregnant women with previous preterm labour or mid trimester loss
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question32:-Regarding the conduct of labour after previous caesarean section following are true EXCEPT
A:-In women with history of uterine rupture or classical T/J uterine body incisions elective caesarean is recommended.
B:-Successful VBAC (Vaginal Birth After Caesarean) rates are similar among spontaneous and induced labour.
C:-In women who desire TOLAC (Trial Of Labour After Caesarean) acceptable methods of induction of labour include prudent use of oxytocine, mechanical dilatation and amniotomy.
D:-Upto 70% of uterine rupture cases demonstrate abnormal fetal heart tracing.
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question33:-Regarding the fourth trimester all are true EXCEPT.
A:-Complete involution in nulliparous uterus is longer than for the multiparous organ.
B:-Severe and persistent after pains is suggestive of postpartum uterine infections.
C:-Sonographically, the uterus and endometrium return to the pregravid size by 8 weeks postpartum.
D:-Histological endometritis is a part of reparative process.
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question34:-Which among the following is NOT an indication (red flag sign) for urgent referral while assessing a puerperal woman ?
A:-Respiratory rate >20 breaths/minute
B:-Diarrhea and or vomiting
C:-Offensive vaginal discharge
D:-Unduly anxious woman
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question35:-The most important risk factor for preterm labour
A:-Infection
B:-Life style
C:-Inter pregnancy interval
D:-Prior preterm birth
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question36:-BEAM trial is regarding
A:-Betamethasone for accelerating lung maturity
B:-Magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection
C:-Antibiotics in preterm labour
D:-Tocolytics in preterm labour
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question37:-The WHO has identified ________ as the best indicator of the effectiveness of intervention in iron deficiency.
A:-Mean Corpuscular Volume
B:-Serum iron level
C:-Serum Ferritin
D:-Total Iron Binding Capacity
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question38:-Basic Emergency obstetric and New born care includes all except (B Em ONC)
A:-Parentral antibiotics
B:-Parentral anticonvulsants
C:-Manual Removal of Placenta (MROP)
D:-Blood Transfusion
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question39:-First trimester risk assessment for Pre Ecelampsia is done using a combination of maternal history and biomarkers which include
A:-Systolic Blood Pressure
B:-Umbilical Artery Pulsable Index
C:-Serum PLGF (placental growth factor)
D:-all of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question40:-Criteria for outlet forceps delivery include all except
A:-Fetal skull is visible at the introitus (INTROITUS) without separating the labia
B:-Fetal head is at or on perineum
C:-Rotation does not exceed 45 degrees
D:-Sagittal future is in an anteroposterior diameter or right or left occipito anterior or posterior position
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question41:-All are prerequisites for operative vaginal delivery except
A:-Cervix fully dialated and non retracted
B:-Membranes ruptured
C:-Fetal head is engaged
D:-Patient has agreed after being informed of the risks and benefits of the procedure
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question42:-Recommendation for systematic treatment and supportive medications for patients under going cancer treatment in pregnancy include all except
A:-Dosing of chemotherapeutic drug during pregnancy should be based on prepregnancy weight.
B:-Same dose/m² or dose/kg² should be used as in non pregnant patients.
C:-After 14 wks of gestation administration of several anti cancer drugs are feasible including taxanes, platinum agents, etoposide, bleomycin and anthracycline
D:-Chemotherapy is not recommended more than 35 wks
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question43:-For NT (Nuchal Translucency) measurement the prerequisite is
A:-Gestational age between 10 wks – 12 weeks
B:-Fetal Crown Rump Length (CRL) should be between 65-80 mm
C:-The magnification of the image should be such that fetal head and thorax should occupy the whole screen
D:-During the scam only one measurement should be taken
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question44:-WHO recommendation on maternal and newborn care for a positive postnatal experience include
A:-Universal screening for abnormalities of eye
B:-Universal screening for learning impairment
C:-Universal screening for neonatal hyper bilirubinaemia
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question45:-All of the following are Government of India sponsored safe motherhood programmes except
A:-KASP (Karunya Arogya Suraksha Padhathi)
B:-Labour Room Quality Improvement Initiative (LaQshya)
C:-Janani Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (JSSK)
D:-Surakshit Mathrithve Aashwason (SUMAN)
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question46:-Which of the following above which signifies cardio respiratory collapse and belong to the criteria for identification of maternal near miss (MNM) cases ?
A:-Fall in oxygen saturation below 90%
B:-Heart rate >120 beats per minute
C:-Clot observation time > 7 minute
D:-Blood and blood products transfusion (More than 90 mL/kg body weight or >5 units of blood)
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question47:-Carbetocin is contraindicated in all the following circumstances for the prevention of postpartum Haemorrhage (PPH) except
A:-women with a history of serious cardiovascular disorders
B:-women with history of Bronchial Asthma
C:-women with history of epilepsy
D:-women with hepatic or renal disorders
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question48:-Among the 8 Millennium Development Goals (MDG) improving internal health by decreasing the medicinal mortality ratio and universal access to reproductive health is
A:-Goal 8
B:-Goal 5
C:-Goal 4
D:-Goal 2
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question49:-Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) was adopted by United Nation in 2015. Among the 17 SDGs sustainable development goal – 2 denotes
A:-No poverty
B:-Zero Hunger
C:-Gender equality
D:-Clean water and sanitation
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question50:-Normal menstrual cycle is defined as
i) frequency varies between 15 and 40 days
ii) regularity (variation of menstrual cycle length) : +/- 2 to 20 days
iii) average normal bleeding amount : 5-80 mL
iv) an average of 7 days
A:-i, iv are wrong
B:-i, iii are correct
C:-iii, iv are correct
D:-All are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question51:-According to FIGO PALM COIEN Classification of abnormal Uterine bleeding
i) P is Polyp
ii) A is Asherman syndrome
iii) L is luteal phase defect
iv) M is Mittelschmerz bleeding
A:-i, ii are correct
B:-ii, iii, iv are wrong
C:-iii, iv are correct
D:-All are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question52:-Factors which reduced risk of endometriosis are
i) Oral contraceptive Pills
ii) Nulliparity
iii) Early Menarche
iv) Pregnancy
A:-i, ii are correct
B:-ii, iii, iv are correct
C:-ii, iii are wrong
D:-i, ii, iii iv are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question53:-Paramesonepheric duct forms
i) Fallopian Tube
ii) Uterus
iii) Epididymis
iv) Vas deferens
v) Upper two third of vagina
A:-iii and iv are correct
B:-all are correct
C:-i, ii, iv are correct
D:-All are wrong
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question54:-Uterovaginal malformation gives rise to following symptoms or complaints
i) Infertility
ii) Pregnancy loss
iii) Preterm delivery
iv) Preterm Premature rupture of membranes
v) All of the above
A:-Only ii, iii, iv are correct
B:-i is wrong
C:-only iii, iv are correct
D:-v is correct
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question55:-FIGO Classification of LEOMYOMA according to location in the uterus
i) Submucous (FIGO type 0,1,2) : Completely within the endometrial cavity and/or extend into myometrium.
ii) Intramural (FIGO type 3,4,5) : They are located within the uterine wall (myometrium)
iii) Subserosal (FIGO type 6,7) : They are located on the serosal (outer) surface of the uterus, extend beyond the uterus, could be pedunculated, intraligamentary
(i.e., broad ligament), parasitic as well, abdominal wall fibroids.
iv) Cervical (FIGO type 8).
v) All are correct
A:-i, ii, iii are wrong
B:-only iii, iv are correct
C:-v is correct
D:-only i, ii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question56:-Risk factors for endometrial hyperplasia include
i) Anovulation
ii) Estrogen producing tumor
iii) Late manarche
iv) Use of exogenous estrogen with progesterone
v) Tamoxifen treatment
A:-iii, iv are wrong
B:-Only i is correct
C:-All are correct
D:-Only i and v are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question57:-Indications to add progesterone in Menopausal Hormone therapy (MHT) are
i) Patients underwent hysterectomy for endometrial cancer
ii) Patients underwent hysterectomy for endometriosis
iii) Supracervical hysterectomy
iv) Endometroid tumour of ovary
v) All of the above
A:-Only i and ii
B:-Only iv is correct
C:-Only iii is correct
D:-v is correct
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question58:-About clomiphene citrate
i) It is selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM)
ii) Its half life is 10 days
iii) Used for ovulation induction since 1967
iv) Stimulates circulating Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) by antagonizing estrogen in infertile patients so follicle development is stimulated
A:-ii, iv are wrong
B:-i, ii, iii are correct
C:-All are correct
D:-iii is wrong
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question59:-Cervical cancer screening protocol
i) Pap smear (Cervical cytology) should be performed after 21 years of age and is repeated every 3 years.
ii) HPV screening begins after the age of 21. It is repeated every 5 years.
iii) If a high-risk HPV type other than HPV 16 or 18 is detected, then the HPV test should be repeated 1 year later.
iv) If high risk positive again (1 year later) → colposcopy is to be done.
v) All are correct.
A:-Only i is correct
B:-ii is incorrect
C:-v is correct
D:-Only iii and iv are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question60:-Common cause of primary amenorrhoea
i) Turner’s syndrome
ii) Mullerian agenesis
iii) Constitutional delay
iv) Transverse vaginal septum
v) All the above
A:-Only i and ii are correct
B:-iii and iv are wrong
C:-v is correct
D:-All are wrong
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question61:-On gynaecological examination uterine and adnexal masses can be differentiated by the following :
i) Mass can be palpated through fornices or midline
ii) Find out if uterus palpated separately or not
iii) Presence of a groove between mass and uterus
iv) Presence of transmitted mobility suggests adnexal mass
v) All the above
A:-i, ii, iii are wrong
B:-iv is wrong
C:-v is correct
D:-only iv is correct
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question62:-Adenomyosis
i) It is presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium at least 3 high power (2.5mm) field from basal layer.
ii) It can be localized or diffuse.
iii) Most common symptoms are HMB and dysmenorrhoea.
iv) Musa criteria on ultrasound is used for diagnosis.
v) All the above.
A:-i is wrong
B:-v is correct
C:-Only iii and iv are correct
D:-i and ii are correct
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question63:-Current Sonographic criteria for PCOS morphology require __________
A:-Presence of 12 or more follicles in both ovaries each measuring to 2-9 mm, ovarian volume > 10 ml
B:-Presence of 20 or more follicles in both ovaries each measuring to 2-9 mm, ovarian volume > 10 ml
C:-Presence of 20 or more follicles in single ovary each measuring to 2-9 mm, ovarian volume > 10 ml
D:-None of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question64:-Gene XPERT is used in
A:-Preimplantation genetic screening
B:-Extra pulmonary tuberculosis
C:-Vulvar epithelial neoplasia
D:-Sentinel lymph node sampling
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question65:-Whch are the characteristics of hyper responders on gonadotrophin stimulation used in ART
1. Obesity
2. FSH <8 miu/ml
3. AFC > 12
4. AMH < 1ng/ml
5. Age > 37 yrs
A:-1 and 3 true
B:-3 and 5 true
C:-4 and 5 true
D:-2 and 3 true
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question66:-Kallmann syndrome in women is characterised by all except
A:-Midline facial anomalies like cleft palate
B:-Genetic disorder of KAL 1 gene mutation of short arm of X chromosome resulting in hyper gonadotrophic hypogonadism
C:-Mirror synkinesis
D:-Anosmia
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question67:-True statement about GnRH secretion is
A:-GnRH secretion occurs in a pulsatile fashion with higher pulse frequency stimulates FSH secretion
B:-GnRH secretion occurs in a continuous manner with peak at early morning hours
C:-GnRH secretion occurs in a pulsatile fashion with regular uniform pulses with minimal diurnal variation
D:-GnRH secretion occurs in a pulsatile fashion with higher pulse frequency stimulates LH secretion
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question68:-The Hilus cells of ovary closely resembles
A:-Testicular Leydig cells
B:-Clear cells
C:-Neuro endocrine cells
D:-Adipocytes
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question69:-All are characters of Adolescent abnormal uterine bleeding except
A:-Cycles longer than 35 days
B:-Bleeding that occurs frequently than 21 days
C:-Bleeding lasting more than 7 days
D:-Bleeding occurring less frequently than an interval of 90 days
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question70:-True statements about classic congenital adrenal hyperplasia are
1. Classic form is due to 17 hydroxylase deficiency resulting in heterosexual precocious puberty.
2. There is impaiment in conversion of 11 de oxy cortisol to 17 hydroxy progesterone
3. Mildly virilise newborn should be monitored closely for life threatening crisis within the first few days of life
4. Untreated girls grow rapidly and results in tall stature.
5. Normal childbearing is possible with appropriate therapy
A:-1, 2, 3, 4, 5 true
B:-1, 2, 3 true
C:-1, 2, 5 true
D:-3, 5 true
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question71:-In Hyper prolactinemia following statements are true
1. If serum prolactin levels are > 20 ng/ml MR imaging should be done.
2. No breast examination should be done prior to prolactin estimation since it may yield false positive results
3. Should be checked at night when prolactin levels are at nadir
4. Cause anovulation due to stimulation of dopaminergic receptors on the GnRH neurons altering GnRH pulsatility and reducing folliculogeneis.
A:-2, 4 true
B:-1, 2, 3, 4 true
C:-3, 4 true
D:-2, 3 true
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question72:-Primary amenorrhea due to androgen insensitivity syndrome is characterised by
1. Phenotypically females with XY karyotype and blind ending vagina.
2. Streak gonads with upper part of uterus is rudimentary.
3. Tall eunuchoid females with well-developed breasts.
4. Once diagnosed testes should be removed as soon as possible due to high risk of malignancy.
A:-1, 2, 3, 4 true
B:-2, 3 true
C:-1, 3, 4 true
D:-1, 3 true
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question73:-The four phenotypes of PCOS includes all except
A:-Hyperandrogenism with PCOS and ovulatory dysfunction
B:-PCOS with ovarian dysfunction
C:-PCOS with obesity and insulin resistance
D:-Hyperandrogenism with PCOS
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question74:-Definitive criteria for diagnosis of PID includes all except
A:-Endometrial biopsy with histopathologic evidence of endometritis
B:-Transvaginal sonography or other imaging techniques showing thickened fluid filled tubes with free fluid or Tubo ovarian abscess
C:-Laparoscopy showing fallopian tube erythema and/or mucopurulent exudates
D:-Vaginal swab culture showing Neisseria gonorrhoea and Chlamydia trachomatis
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question75:-Early age at onset of sexual activity increases the risk of Cancer Cervix because
i. the squamocolumnar junction is more towards the endocervical region
ii. cervical reserve and metaplastic cells are more vulnerable to the oncogenic effects of HPV.
iii. squamous metaplasia is most active during adolescence and pregnancy.
iv. the more mature the epithelium, the higher the risk of viral reservoir formation in the cells.
A:-ii
B:-ii and iii
C:-i and ii
D:-ii, iii and iv
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question76:-Younger women frequently show changes in HPV types on repeat testing because
i. Most HPV lesions regress spontaneously in young women.
ii. there might be sequential reinfection by new partners.
iii. clinical infections with high-risk HPV types never regress.
iv. HPV infections do not occur frequently in young women in monogamous relationships.
A:-i and ii
B:-iii and iv
C:-i and iv
D:-ii and iv
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question77:-In a complex ovarian mass on Ultrasound scan, 12 cm size, which of these patients should be referred to a Gynaecologic Oncologist
A:-a young lady with a CA 125 level of 153 U/ml
B:-a post-menopausal woman with a normal CA 125
C:-a young women with an OVA 1 score of 4.5
D:-a post-menopausal woman with an OVA 1 score of 4.5
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question78:-The highest risk in a woman with Endometrial Carcinoma is in a patient with
A:-POLE mutation
B:-MMR deficient
C:-p53 abnormalities
D:-high MSI
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question79:-A 57-year old menopausal lady, with no comorbidities is on vaginal oestrogen therapy since the last nine months for Genitourinary syndrome of
menopause. Which of the following is the true statement ?
A:-she needs endometrial sampling every six months
B:-Endometrial sampling is required only if she is on vaginal DHEA
C:-Endometrial sampling is indicated only if she presents with bleeding
D:-there is no role for endometrial sampling, regardless of period of use, since there is only minimal absorption of oestrogen through vaginal epithelium
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question80:-Regarding Lymph node dissection in Endometrial Carcinoma, the following are true
i. sentinel lymph node biopsy can be performed in low-risk disease
ii. systematic lymphadenectomy should be done in all cases.
iii. sentinel lymph node dissection following lymphatic mapping may increase detection of low-volume disease with low false positive rates
iv. sentinel lymph node biopsy is an adequate alternative to systematic lymphadenectomy for staging purposes.
A:-i and ii
B:-i, iii, and iv
C:-i and iii
D:-iii and iv
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question81:-Tests for muscle function to assess severity of Sarcopenia in Menopause include all except
A:-Clinical Anthropometry
B:-Gait speed
C:-Timed get-up-and-go test
D:-Grip strength
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question82:-Hysteroscopic myomectomy is better feasible if the submucous myoma is
A:-< 3 cm and extends < 50% into the myometrium
B:-< 3 cm and is sessile
C:-< 3 cm and extends < 50% into the lateral wall of the upper part of the uterine myometrium
D:-< 3 cm and extends > 50% into the myometrium
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question83:-The following are true about pneumoperitoneum in gynaecological laparoscopic procedures
i. the maximum flow rate of CO₂ with a Veress needle is 3 L/min.
ii. heated and humidified CO₂ gas gives better patient outcomes.
iii. target intra-abdominal pressure is ideally between 8-10 mm Hg.
iv. Monitoring end-tidal CO₂ concentration is mandatory to prevent hypercapnoea and respiratory acidosis
A:-i and ii
B:-i and iii
C:-i, iii and iv
D:-i and iv
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question84:-Bilateral Salpingectomy done in a low risk 42-year old woman undergoing hysterectomy for large fibroid uterus is called
A:-Risk reducing Salpingectomy
B:-Opportunistic Salpingectomy
C:-Elective Salpingectomy
D:-Therapeutic Salpingectomy
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question85:-Chemotherapy in advanced Cancer cervix involves the use of
A:-Cisplatin
B:-Carboplatin + Paclitaxel
C:-Carboplatin + Topotecan
D:-Bevacizumab
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question86:-The preferred mode of treatment for a woman with Infertility and severe Endometriosis is
A:-Medical management with GnRH agonists
B:-Laparoscopic adhesiolysis and restoration of pelvic anatomy
C:-Laparotomy and ovarian cystectomy
D:-Intra uterine insemination
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question87:-All the following are correct regarding partial mole except
A:-Partial mole has a triploid karyotype
B:-20% incidence of neoplasia
C:-clinically a fetus will be present along with hydatidiform changes in placenta
D:-a cause of early fetal loss
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question88:-Posterior acoustic shadowing on ultrasound is a feature of
A:-Dermoid cyst
B:-Dysgerminoma
C:-Endodermal sinus tumor
D:-Endometrioma
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question89:-Most effective method of high volume weight loss
A:-Metformin
B:-Orlistat
C:-Pherntermine
D:-Bariatric surgery
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question90:-First line treatment for infertility in females with PCOS
A:-Clomiphene citrate
B:-Metformin
C:-Letrozole
D:-Injectable gonadotrophin
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question91:-COC’s provide protection against following malignancy
A:-Breast cancer
B:-Cervical cancer
C:-Endometrial cancer
D:-Choriocarcinoma
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question92:-Following is currently not an indication for use of HRT
A:-Premature ovarian failure
B:-Early menopause
C:-Prevention of dementia
D:-Osteoporosis
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question93:-Efficacy of quadrivalent HPV vaccine was studied in
A:-PATRICIA TRIAL
B:-FUTURE TRIAL
C:-COSTARICA TRIAL
D:-LACC TRIAL
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question94:-The main benefit of the transobturator over the retro pubic tape procedure for the treatment of SUI is
A:-Reducing risk of introperative bladder injury
B:-reducing the risk of c/c pain/nerve injury
C:-easier surgical removal if necessary
D:-All of the above
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question95:-According to WHO the primary target population for HPV vaccination
A:-9-14
B:-9-16
C:-9-18
D:-9-20
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question96:-What is the risk of BRCA1 and BRCA2 pathogenic variants in the Ashkenazi Jewish population
A:-1 in 10
B:-1 in 40
C:-1 in 200
D:-1 in 2000
Correct Answer:- Option-B

Question97:-Absolute contraindications of COC are all exceopt
A:-DVT/PE
B:-Major surgery with prolonged immobilisation
C:-Breast feeding women < 6 weeks postpartum
D:-Hyperlipidemia
Correct Answer:- Option-D

Question98:-MTP Amendment Act 2021 includes following except
A:-Pregnancy termination requires opinion of two RMP’s from 12-20 weeks
B:-In case of substantial fetal anomaly requiring MTP after 24 wks opinion of state level medical board is mandatory
C:-Confidentiality of women undergoing MTP should be strictly maintained
D:-Failure to adhere to confidentiality results in imprisonment upto one year
Correct Answer:- Option-A

Question99:-Metastasis to the lungs in GTN is
A:-Stage I
B:-Stage II
C:-Stage III
D:-Stage IV
Correct Answer:- Option-C

Question100:-Which of the following about Non Stress Test (NST)is incorrect ?
A:-In NST of a normal preterm fetus between 24-28 weeks more than 50% are non reactive
B:-In NST of a normal preterm fetus between 28-32 wks > 15% are non raective
C:-Variable deceleration that are non repetitive and brief (< 60 sec) are not associated with fetal compromise or need for obstetric intervention
D:-Repetitive variable deceleration (at least 3 in 20 minutes) has been associated with increased risk for Caesarian delivery
Correct Answer:- Option-C